Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
Last Updated: 20.06.2025 01:26
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
As a Chinese, what disgusts you about the Chinese society today?
You'll usually find your answer there.
There's no rule.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
Democrats be honest, how many of you were wishing that Musk rescue space flight blew up?
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?